Physics-Section-A
1.
A metal cube is exposed to a hydrostatic pressure of \(4\) GPa. The bulk modulus of the metal is given as \(B=8\times 10^{10}~\text{Pa}.\)What is the percentage change in the volume of the cube?
1. \(2.5\)
2. \(5\)
3. \(7.5\)
4. \(10\)
2. The EM wave with the shortest wavelength among the following is:
| 1. | Ultraviolet rays | 2. | \(X\)-rays |
| 3. | Gamma-rays | 4. | Microwaves |
3. A small-signal voltage \(V(t)= V_0 \text{sin}(\omega t)\)is applied across an ideal capacitor \(C\): Find the correct statement from the options given below:
| 1. | over a full cycle, the capacitor \(C\) does not consume any energy from the voltage source. |
| 2. | current \(I(t)\) is in phase with voltage \(V(t)\). |
| 3. | current \(I(t)\) leads voltage \(V(t)\) by \(180^{\circ}\). |
| 4. | current \(I(t)\), lags voltage \(V(t)\) by \(90^{\circ}\). |
4. Which of the following situation(s), can cause the radiation of an electromagnetic wave?
| (A) | a varying sinusoidal current flowing through a capacitor |
| (B) | an electric dipole, whose size (and magnitude) is oscillating with time |
| (C) | a steady current flowing through a toroid |
Choose the correct options:
| 1. | only (A) |
| 2. | only (B) |
| 3. | only (A) & (B) |
| 4. | (A), (B), (C) |
5.
The correct match between the entries in Column I (radiation) and Column II(wavelength) are:
| Column I | Column II | ||
| (a) | Microwaves | (i) | \(100~\text{m}\) |
| (b) | Gamma rays | (ii) | \(10^{-15}~\text{m}\) |
| (c) | AM radio waves | (iii) | \(10^{-10}~\text{m}\) |
| (d) | X-rays | (iv) | \(10^{-3}~\text{m}\) |
| 1. | (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) |
| 2. | (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) |
| 3. | (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) |
| 4. | (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) |
6.
\(I_1,I_2,I_3\) and \(I_4\) are the respective rms values of the time-varying currents as shown in the four cases I, II, III and IV.
Identify the option that captures the correct relation:
| 1. | \(I_I=I_2=I_3=I_4\) | 2. | \(I_3>I_1=I_2>I_4\) |
| 3. | \(I_3>I_4>I_2=I_1\) | 4. | \(I_3>I_2>I_1>I_4\) |
7. Monoatomic and diatomic ideal gases are filled into the two compartments of an insulated vessel as shown in the figure. Their initial pressures, volumes and temperatures are \(P_0,V_0\) and \(\theta_1\) (see figure). Thereafter, they are allowed to mix by removing the partition. The final temperature is \(\theta_2.\) Then:
| 1. | \(\theta_1=\theta_2\) | 2. | \(2\theta_1=\theta_2\) |
| 3. | \(\theta_1=2\theta_2\) | 4. | \(\theta_1=4\theta_2\) |
8.
The longitudinal strain of a string equals twice the magnitude of its lateral strain. What is Poisson's ratio of the material of the string?
1.\(0.4\)
2.\(0.5\)
3.\(0.1\)
4.\(0.2\)
9.
The value of the coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is\(5\times10^{-4}~\text{K}^{-1}.\)The fractional change in the density of glycerine for a rise of \(40^\circ \text{C}\) in its temperature is:
1. \(0.015\)
2. \(0.020\)
3. \(0.025\)
4. \(0.010\)
10. An electromagnetic wave travelling along the \(x\)-axis, has its electric field \(\vec{E}\) given by:
\(\vec E=(E_0\hat j)\sin(\omega t-kx)\)
where \(\omega,k\) are constants. The intensity of this wave is proportional to:
1. \(E_0\)
2. \(E_0^2\)
3. \(E_0^{-1}\)
4. \(E_0^{-2}\)
11.
\(1~\text g\)of water of volume \(1~\text{cm}^3\)at \(100^\circ \text{C}\)is converted into steam at the same temperature under normal atmospheric pressure\(\approx 1\times10^{5}~\text{Pa}.\)The volume ofsteam formed equals \(1671~\text{cm}^3.\)If the specific latent heat of vaporization of water is \(2256~\text{J/g},\)the change in internal energy is:
1. \(2423~\text J\)
2. \(2089~\text J\)
3. \(167~\text J\)
4. \(2256~\text J\)
12.
The velocity of a small ball of mass \(M\) and density \(d\), when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is\(d\over 2\)then the viscous force acting on the ball will be:
| 1. | \(\frac{3Mg}{2}\) | 2. | \(2Mg\) |
| 3. | \(\frac{Mg}{2}\) | 4. | \(Mg\) |
13. A series \(LCR\) circuit with inductance \(10~\text{H}\), capacitance\(10~\mu \text{F}\), resistance\(50~\Omega\)is connected to an AC source of voltage, \(V=200 \sin (100 t) \text { volt }\). If the resonant frequency of the \(LCR\) circuit is\(\nu_0\)and the frequency of the AC source is\(\nu\), then:
| 1. | \(\nu=100 ~\text{Hz} ; ~\nu_0=\dfrac{100}{\pi} ~\text{Hz}\) |
| 2. | \(\nu_0=\nu=50~\text{Hz}\) |
| 3. | \(\nu_0=\nu=\dfrac{50}{\pi} ~\text{Hz}\) |
| 4. | \(\nu_{0}=\dfrac{50}{\pi}~ \text{Hz}, \nu=50 ~\text{Hz}\) |
14. A piece of iron of water equivalent\(10 \)g is taken from a furnace and put into a calorimeter containing\(100\)g of water at an initial temperature of\(20^{\circ} \text{C}.\)The final temperature of the system is observed to be\(80^{\circ} \text{C}.\) Ignore the thermal capacity of the calorimeter and any loss of heat. The temperature of the furnace is:
1.\(600^{\circ} \text{C}\)
2.\(620^{\circ} \text{C}\)
3.\(680^{\circ} \text{C}\)
4.\(520^{\circ} \text{C}\)
15. Select the correct option based on statements below.
A Carnot engine works between two thermal reservoirs maintained at absolute temperatures \(T_{\text{high}}\) and \(T_{\text{low}}\).
| Assertion(A): | If the efficiency of the engine is \(\frac1n,\) then the coefficient of performance of the reversed cycle working as a refrigerator is \(n-1\). |
| Reason(R): | The efficiency of Carnot's cycle is \(1-\frac{T_{\text{low}}}{T_{\text{high}}},\) while the coefficient of performance of the reversed cycle is \(\frac{T_{\text{low}}}{T_{\text{high}~-~T_{\text{low}}}}\). |
| 1. | (A) is True but (R) is False. |
| 2. | (A) is False but (R) is True. |
| 3. | Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
| 4. | Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
16. A liquid of density \(\rho\) flows through a bent tube of cross-section \(A,\) with a speed \(v.\) The liquid enters at point \(A\) and exits at \(B\) in the opposite direction. The radius of the bend is \(R.\) The tube lies on a horizontal table. The force required to hold the tube equals:
| 1. | \(\rho Av^2\) | 2. | \(2\rho Av^2\) |
| 3. | \(\sqrt2\rho Av^2\) | 4. | \(\rho v^2\pi R^2\) |
17. The energy density in a wire which is under stress is given by:
1. \({\large\frac12}\text{(stress)}^2\)
2. \({\large\frac12}\text{(strain)}^2\)
3. \({\large\frac12}\text{(stress)}\times\text{(strain)}\)
4. \({\large\frac{1}{2}\frac{\text{(stress)}^2}{\text{strain}}}\)
18. The ratio of the \(\text{rms}\) speed \((v_{rms})\) of the molecules of an ideal gas to the speed of sound \((v_s)\) in the gas, i.e. \({\dfrac{v_{rms}}{v_s}}{\small=}\)
| 1. | \(\dfrac{3}{\gamma}\) | 2. | \(\sqrt{\dfrac{3}{\gamma}}\) |
| 3. | \(\dfrac{\gamma}{3}\) | 4. | \(\sqrt{\dfrac{\gamma}{3}}\) |
19. Tanks \(A\) and \(B\) open at the top contains two different liquids upto a certain height in them. A hole is made in the wall of each tank at a depth \(h\) from the surface of the liquid. The area of the hole in \(A\) is twice that of in \(B\). If the mass flow rate through each hole is equal, then the ratio of densities of the liquids respectively is:
1. \(\frac{2}{1}\)
2. \(\frac{3}{2}\)
3. \(\frac{2}{3}\)
4. \(\frac{1}{2}\)
20. The upper end of a wire of length \(2\) m and radius \(2\) mm is clamped. The lower end is twisted through an angle of \(45^\circ.\) The angle of shear is:
1. \(0.09^\circ\)
2. \(0.045^\circ\)
3. \(0.9^\circ\)
4. \(4.5^\circ\)
21. A resistance thermometer reads \(40~\Omega\) at \(0^\circ\text C\) and \(41~\Omega\) at \(100^\circ\text C.\) The temperature of a sample, when the resistance is \(41.2~\Omega,\) is:
| 1. | \(20^\circ\text C\) | 2. | \(80^\circ\text C\) |
| 3. | \(120^\circ\text C\) | 4. | \(-20^\circ\text C\) |
22.
A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume \(V\) at a pressure \(P\) and absolute temperature \(T\). The mass of each molecule of the gas is \(m\). Which of the following gives the density of the gas?
1.\(\frac{P}{kT}\)
2.\(\frac{Pm}{kT}\)
3.\(\frac{P}{kTV}\)
4.\(mkT\)
23.
Steam at\(100~^{\circ}\text{C}\)is passed into \(20~\text{g}\) of water at \(10~^{\circ}\text{C}.\)When water acquires a temperature of \(80~^{\circ}\text{C},\)the mass of water present will be:
[Take specific heat of water \(= 1~\text{cal g}^{-1}~^\circ\text{C}^{-1}\)and latent heat of steam \(= 540~\text{cal g}^{-1}\)]
1.\(24~\text{g}\)
2.\(31.5~\text{g}\)
3.\(42.5~\text{g}\)
4.\(22.5~\text{g}\)
24. A transformer has \(100\) turns in its primary. It has two secondary circuits: one with \(10\) turns and the other with \(20\) turns. The RMS voltage across the primary is \(30~\text{V}\). The secondaries are connected to\(10~\Omega\) loads, as shown. Assuming no power loss, the RMS current in the primary is:
| 1. | \(0.2~\text{A}\) | 2. | \(0.15~\text{A}\) |
| 3. | \(0.45~\text{A}\) | 4. | \(0.9~\text{A}\) |
25.
The approximate depth of an ocean is \(2700~\text{m}\). The compressibility of water is \(45.4\times10^{-11}~\text{Pa}^{-1}\)and the density of water is \(10^{3}~\text{kg/m}^3\). What fractional compression of water will be obtained at the bottom of the ocean?
1. \(0.8\times 10^{-2}\)
2.\(1.0\times 10^{-2}\)
3.\(1.2\times 10^{-2}\)
4.\(1.4\times 10^{-2}\)
26.
A \(40\)F capacitor is connected to a \(200\) V, \(50\) Hz AC supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, nearly:
| 1. | \(2.05\) A | 2. | \(2.5\) A |
| 3. | \(25.1\) A | 4. | \(1.7\) A |
27. What would be the ratio of the root mean square speed of oxygen gas molecules to that of hydrogen gas molecules, if the temperature of both the gases are the same?
| 1. | \(1:4\) | 2. | \(1:16\) |
| 3. | \(1:32\) | 4. | \(1:8\) |
28.
A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at a pressure of \(249~\text{kPa}\) and temperature\(27^\circ\text{C}.\)Its density is: (\(R=8.3~\text{J mol}^{-1} \text {K}^{-1}\))
1.\(0.2~\text{kg/m}^{3}\)
2.\(0.1~\text{kg/m}^{3}\)
3.\(0.02~\text{kg/m}^{3}\)
4.\(0.5~\text{kg/m}^{3}\)
29. Three identical thermal conductors are connected, as shown in the figure. The temperature of the connected junction is (assuming no heat lost due to radiation):
1.\(60^\circ\text{C}\)
2.\(20^\circ\text{C}\)
3.\(50^\circ\text{C}\)
4.\(10^\circ\text{C}\)
30. A large cylindrical piece of a dense solid elastic metal stands on its end as shown in the figure. The metal is uniform and isotropic. The stress in the material as a function of height is shown correctly by:
1.  | 2. |
3. | 4. |
31. A monoatomic gas \((A)\) and a diatomic gas \((B)\) are taken in two separate identical containers at the same conditions of temperature and pressure.
The two gases are allowed to expand slowly, isothermally, until their volumes are doubled. The final pressure of gas \(A\) is \(P_A\) and that of gas \(B\) is \(P_B.\) Then:
| 1. | \(P_A=P_B\) |
| 2. | \(P_A=2P_B\) |
| 3. | \(P_A=\)\(\large\frac12\)\(P_B\) |
| 4. | the relationship between \(P_A\) and \(P_B\) depends on the molecular weights of \(A\) and \(B\) |
32.
A wind with a speed of \(40~\text{m/s}\)blows parallel to the roof of a house. The area of the roof is \(250~\text{m}^2.\)Assuming that the pressure inside the house is atmospheric pressure, the force exerted by the wind on the roof and the direction of the force will be:
\((\rho_{\text {air }}=1.2~\text{kg/m}^3)\)
1. \(4 \times 10^5~\text N,\)downwards
2. \(4 \times 10^5~\text N,\)upwards
3. \(2.4 \times 10^5~\text N,\)upwards
4. \(2.4 \times 10^5~\text N,\)downwards
33. The pressure of an ideal gas \(\Big(\gamma=\frac32\Big)\) is increased by \(1\%\) in an adiabatic process. The temperature of the gas:
| 1. | increases by \(1.5\%\) |
| 2. | decreases by \(1.5\%\) |
| 3. | increases by \(\frac13\%\) |
| 4. | increases by \(\frac23\%\) |
34.
The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of \(1\) g of Helium at NTP, from \({T_1}\)K to \({T_2}\)K is:
1.\(\frac{3}{2}N_ak_B(T_2-T_1)\)
2.\(\frac{3}{4}N_ak_B(T_2-T_1)\)
3.\(\frac{3}{4}N_ak_B\frac{T_2}{T_1}\)
4.\(\frac{3}{8}N_ak_B(T_2-T_1)\)
35.
The energy of the EM waves is of the order of \(15~\mathrm{keV}\). To which part of the spectrum does it belong?
1. X-rays
2. Infrared rays
3. Ultraviolet rays
4.\(\gamma\)-rays
Physics-Section-B
36.
The pressure of an ideal gas is written as \(p=\dfrac{2E}{3V},\) where \(E\) is the total kinetic energy, and \(V\) is the volume.
This statement is:
| 1. | always true. |
| 2. | true for mono-atomic gases. |
| 3. | always false. |
| 4. | true for diatomic gases. |
37. A body cools from \(52^\circ \text{C}\) to\(48^\circ \text{C}\) in \(6\) minutes. How much time will the same body take to cool from \(53^\circ \text{C}\) to \(47^\circ \text{C}?\) Assume cooling is linear with time.
1.\(12\) minutes
2. \(9\) minutes
3. \(8\) minutes
4. \(7\) minutes
38. Two monoatomic gases \(A,B\) are taken in two parts of a vessel having equal volumes \(V_0.\) The gases are at the same pressure \(P_0\) but at temperature of \(300~\text K\) and \(600~\text K.\) There is a partition between the parts of the vessel. The partition is removed, and the gases are allowed to mix. The vessel, as a whole, is insulated. The final temperature of the system is:
1. \(450~\text K\)
2. \(400~\text K\)
3. \(500~\text K\)
4. \(550~\text K\)
39. The surface tension of the soap solution is \(0.03~\text{N/m}\). The work done in blowing to form a soap bubble of surface area \(40~\text{cm}^{2}\) is:
1.\(1.2\times{10}^{-4}~\text{J}\)
2.\(2.4\times{10}^{-4}~\text{J}\)
3.\(12\times 10^{-4}~\text{J}\)
4.\(24\times 10^{-4}~\text{J}\)
40. A gas is heated at constant pressure. The fraction of heat supplied used for external work is:
| 1. | \(\dfrac{1}{{\gamma}}\) | 2. | \(\left({{1}{-}\dfrac{1}{{\gamma}}}\right)\) |
| 3. | \({\gamma}{-}{1}\) | 4. | \(\left({{1}{-}\dfrac{1}{{{\gamma}}^{2}}}\right)\) |
41.
The diagram shows stress v/s strain curve for materials \(A\) and \(B\). From the curves, we infer that:
| 1. | \(A\) is brittle but \(B\) is ductile. |
| 2. | \(A\) is ductile and \(B\) is brittle. |
| 3. | Both \(A\) and \(B\) are ductile. |
| 4. | Both \(A\) and \(B\) are brittle. |
42. Steam (at \(100^\circ\text C\)) is passed through a vessel containing \(270~\text g\) of water at \(0^\circ\text C,\) initially. The steam is passed until the temperature of the water reaches a steady state.
The final temperature of the water in the vessel is:
| 1. | \(50^\circ\text C\) | 2. | \(100^\circ\text C\) |
| 3. | \(27^\circ\text C\) | 4. | \(0^\circ\text C\) |
43. An inductor\(\left(L = 200~\text{mH}\right)\)is connected to an AC source of peak emf \(210~\text{V}\) and frequency \(50~\text{Hz}\). The peak current is:
1. \(2.7~\text{A}\)
2. \(1.2~\text{A}\)
3. \(2.0~\text{A}\)
4. \(3.3~\text{A}\)
44. The amount of elastic potential energy per unit volume (in SI unit) of a steel wire of length \(100\) cm to stretch it by \(1\) mm is: (Given: Young's modulus of the wire = \(2.0\times 10^{11}\)Nm-2)
| 1. | \(10^{11}\) | 2. | \(10^{17}\) |
| 3. | \(10^{7}\) | 4. | \(10^{5}\) |
45. An ice cube is kept in a gravity-free hall. What will be its shape when it melts?
| 1. | cubical |
| 2. | spherical |
| 3. | plane sheet |
| 4. | it can be of any random shape |
46. An alternating voltage of peak value \(300~\text V\) and a frequency \(50~\text{Hz}\) is applied across an inductor \(L=2~\text{mH}\) in a circuit. The induced voltage across the inductor has the peak value:
| 1. | equal to \(300~\text V\) |
| 2. | less than \(300~\text V\) |
| 3. | greater than \(300~\text V\) |
| 4. | zero |
47. An electromagnetic wave, given by its electric field \(\vec E,\) is travelling in space: \(\vec E=E_0\hat j\sin2\pi\Big(10^3~\text s^{-1}t-{\large\frac{x}{\lambda}}\Big)\)
The magnetic field associated with the wave:
(\(c\)=speed of light in vacuum\(=3\times10^8~\text{m/s},\) nearly)
| 1. | has an amplitude \(\large\frac{E_0}{c}\) and oscillates along \(y\)-axis |
| 2. | has an amplitude \(\large\frac{E_0}{c}\) and oscillates along \(z\)-axis |
| 3. | has an amplitude \(E_0\cdot c\) and oscillates along \(y\)-axis |
| 4. | has an amplitude \(E_0\cdot c\) and oscillates along \(z\)-axis |
48. To which region of the electromagnetic spectrum does the frequency \(1~\text{GHz}\) correspond?
| 1. | Ultraviolet rays | 2. | Radiowaves |
| 3. | Visible radiation | 4. | X-rays |
49. The following graph shows two isotherms for a fixed mass of an ideal gas. The ratio of rms speed of the molecules at temperatures \(T_2\) and \(T_1\) is:
1.\(2\sqrt{2}\)
2.\(\sqrt{2}\)
3. \(2\)
4. \(4\)
50. A simple pendulum is made with a thin wire (length: \(l,\) area: \(A,\) Young's modulus: \(Y\)) attached to a heavy bob of mass \(M.\) The pendulum is released from the rest with the bob at the same level as the point of suspension and swings down in a circular arc. The elongation in the wire when the bob reaches the lowest point is:
1.\(\dfrac{3 M g l}{A Y}\)
2.\(\dfrac{2 M g l}{A Y}\)
3.\(\dfrac{3 M g l}{2 A Y}\)
4.\(\dfrac{M g l}{A Y}\)
Chemistry-Section-A
51.
In a cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid molecule, how many single and doublebonds are present?
| 1. | 3 double bonds; 9 single bonds. |
| 2. | 6 double bonds; 6 single bonds |
| 3. | 3 double bonds; 12 single bunds |
| 4. | Zero double bonds; 12 single bonds |
52. Which compound does not give Lassaigne's test for nitrogen?
| 1. | Urea | 2. | \(\mathrm {NH_2OH}\) |
| 3. |  | 4. |  |
53.
Despite the dipole moment in the B–Cl bond, the BCl3 molecule as a whole has no dipole moment because:
| 1. | The respective dipole-moments of the B–Cl bond add with each other |
| 2. | The respective dipole moments of the B–Cl bond cancel each other |
| 3. | BCl3is tetrahedral in shape |
| 4. | None of the above |
54. The incorrect statement regarding ammonia is:
| 1. | Ammonia is a colorless gas with a pungent odor. |
| 2. | Ammonia is used for the manufacture of nitric acid. |
| 3. | As a weak base, it precipitates the hydroxides of many metals from their salt solutions. |
| 4. | Ammonia molecule is trigonal planar with the nitrogen atom at the apex. |
55.
Match the Xenon compounds in Column I with their structure in Column II and assign the correct code:
| Column I | Column II | ||
| (a) | XeF4 | (i) | Pyramidal |
| (b) | XeF6 | (ii) | Square planar |
| (c) | XeOF4 | (iii) | Distorted octahedral |
| (d) | XeO3 | (iv) | Square pyramidal |
Code:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| 1. | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
| 2. | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| 3. | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
| 4. | (ii) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) |
56. Identify the correct energy diagram that shows the electron distribution according to the crystal field model of 3d-electrons in\(\left[\mathrm{CoCl}_4\right]^{2-} \).
| 1. |  | 2. |  |
| 3. |  | 4. |  |
57.
In the structure of diborane (B2H6) , the hybridised state of B & the maximum number of atoms which are present in one plane, respectively, are:
| 1. | sp2 & 4 | 2. | sp3 & 4 |
| 3. | sp2 & 6 | 4. | sp3 & 6 |
58. The complex ion with zero 'd' electrons in the central metal atom is:
(At. No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
| 1. | \(\mathrm{[MnO_4]^-}\) | 2. | \(\mathrm{[Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}}\) |
| 3. | \(\mathrm{[Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}}\) | 4. | \(\mathrm{[Cr(H_2O)_6]^{3+}}\) |
59.
What is the correct order of Lewis acid strength for the following compounds:\(B B r_3, B C l_3 \text {, and } B F_3\)?
1.<<
2.<<
3.<<
4.<<
60.
An incorrect statement among the following is :
| 1. | La(OH)3is less basic thanLu(OH)3 |
| 2. | In Lanthanide series, ionic radius of Ln+3ions decreases. |
| 3. | La is an element of a transition and not ofLanthanide series. |
| 4. | The atomic radius of Zr and Hf are the same becauseof Lanthanide contraction. |
61. Which one of the following halides exhibits the least covalent character?
1.\( \text{SbCl}_5\)
2.\(\text{SnCl}_2\)
3.\( \text{SnCl}_4\)
4.\( \text{PbCl}_4\)
62. Amphoteric oxide, from the following oxides, is:
1.\(CO_2 \)
2.\(SiO_2 \)
3.\(GeO_2 \)
4.\(PbO_2 \)
63. The oxidation state of cobalt in\([Co(en)_2FBr]Cl \) is:
| 1. | +2 | 2. | +1 |
| 3. | +3 | 4. | +6 |
64.
The hybridization of carbon atoms in the following compound from left to right is:
1. sp2, sp3, sp2, sp2, sp
2. sp2, sp2, sp2, sp2, sp
3. sp3, sp2, sp2, sp2, sp2
4. sp3, sp2, sp2, sp2, sp
65. What is the correct IUPAC name of the given compound?
1.2-Hydroxycyclopentanal
2. 2-Formyl-1-hydroxycyclopentane
3.2-Hydroxycyclopentanecarbaldehyde
4. Cyclopentane-2-ol-1-al
66. For a metal ion,\(\mu = 4.9 \ B.M\). The number of unpaired electrons present in the metal ion is:
1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 1
67.
In the structure of silicon dioxide:
| 1. | There are double bonds between silicon and oxygen atoms. |
| 2. | Silicon atom is bonded to two oxygen atoms. |
| 3. | Each silicon atom is surrounded by two oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two silicon atoms. |
| 4. | Each silicon atom is surrounded by four oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two silicon atoms. |
68. Outer orbital complex salt(s) among the following is/are:
| A. \(\left[\mathrm{Mn}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]^{3-}\) | B. \(\left[\mathrm{C}{\mathrm{o}}\left(\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{O}_4\right)_3\right]^{3-}\) |
| C. \(\left[\mathrm{MnCl}_6\right]^{3-}\) | D. \(\left[\mathrm{Ni}\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)_6\right]^{2+} \) |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| 1. | A and B only | 2. | B and C only |
| 3. | C and D only | 4. | C only |
69.
The most reactive species among the following is:
1.
2.
3.
4. ICI
70.
| Assertion(A): | [Ti(H2O)6]3+is coloured, while [Sc(H2O)6]3+is colourless. |
| Reason(R): | d-d transition is not possible in[Sc(H2O)6]3+because no d-electron is present, while it is possible for Ti3+as it has a d1 system. |
| 1. | Both(A)and(R)are Trueand(R)is the correct explanation of(A). |
| 2. | Both(A)and(R)are Truebut(R)is not the correct explanation of(A). |
| 3. | (A)is Truebut(R)is False. |
| 4. | Both(A)and(R)are False. |
71.
bond is present in :-
72. Match the statement given in Column I with the corresponding element given in Column II and mark the appropriate choice.
| Column I | Column II | ||
| (A) | An element that can show +8 oxidation state | (i) | Ce |
| (B) | An element with +7 as the most stable oxidation state in its oxides | (ii) | Pm |
| (C) | Radioactive lanthanoid | (iii) | Os |
| (D) | Lanthanoid which shows +4 oxidation state | (iv) | Mn |
1. (A)→ (i), (B)→ (ii), (C)→ (iii), (D)→ (iv)
2. (A)→ (ii), (B)→ (iii), (C)→ (iv), (D)→ (i)
3. (A)→ (iv), (B)→ (i), (C)→ (ii), (D)→ (iii)
4. (A)→ (iii), (B)→ (iv), (C)→ (ii), (D)→ (i)
73.
\(\left[\mathrm{MnCl}_6\right]^{3-},\left[\mathrm{FeF}_6\right]^{3-} \text { and }\left[\mathrm{CoF}_6\right]^{3-} \)
The number of unpaired electrons in the above-mentioned high-spin complexes will be respectively:
| 1. | 5, 4, 4 | 2. | 4, 4, 5 |
| 3. | 4, 5, 4 | 4. | 5, 4, 5 |
74.
What is the number of optically active isomers among all the isomers of\( (C_6H_{13}Br)\)?
1. 7
2. 8
3. 9
4. 17
75. Match Column I with Column II and mark the appropriate choice:
| Column I (Complex) | Column II (Isomerism) | ||
| (A) | \(\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_6\right]\left[\mathrm{Cr}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]\) | (i) | Geometrical isomerism |
| (B) | \(\left[\mathrm{Co}(e n)_2\left(\mathrm{NO}_2\right) \mathrm{Cl}\right] \mathrm{Br}\) | (ii) | Optical isomerism |
| (C) | \(\left[\mathrm{Pt}(e n)_2 \mathrm{Cl}_2\right]\) | (iii) | Coordination isomerism |
| (D) | \(\left[\mathrm{Cr}(\mathrm{CN})_2\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_4\right]^{2+}\) | (iv) | Linkage isomerism |
1. (A)→ (iv), (B)→ (ii), (C)→ (iii), (D)→ (i)
2. (A)→ (ii), (B)→ (iii), (C)→ (i), (D)→ (iv)
3. (A)→ (iii), (B)→ (iv), (C)→ (ii), (D)→ (i)
4. (A)→ (i), (B)→ (iii), (C)→ (iv), (D)→ (ii)
76. The number of hydrate isomers of CoCl3.6H2O is/are:
| 1. | 1 | 2. | 2 |
| 3. | 3 | 4. | 4 |
77. Which is not the correct match?
| 1 | Carius method | - | Halogens |
| 2 | Leibig's method | - | C and hydrogen |
| 3 | Kjeldahl's method | - | \(N_2\) |
| 4 | Lassaigne's test | - | \(O_2\) |
78.
Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanised iron, but the reverse is not possible because:
| 1. | Zinc is lighter than iron. |
| 2. | Zinc has a lower melting point than iron. |
| 3. | Zinc has a lower negative reduction potential than iron. |
| 4. | Zinc has a higher negative reduction potential than iron. |
79. ICl3 dimerizes in order to:
1. Reduce the number of lone pair of electrons.
2. Increase the number of bonds.
3. Form coordinate bonds.
4. Reduce lone pair-lone pair repulsion.
80.
The structure of Al2Cl6contains:
1. Four 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-2e bonds
2. Four2c-2e bonds and four 3c-3e bonds
3. Four2c-2e bonds and two 3c-4e bonds
4. Two2c-2e bonds and four 3c-4e bonds
81.
The strongest acid, among the compounds given below, is:
1. HC≡CH
2. C6H6
3. C2H6
4. CH3OH
82.
Which of the following are peroxoacids of sulphur?
| 1. | \(\mathrm{H_{2} SO_{5} } \text{ and } \mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{8}}\) | 2. | \(\mathrm{H_{2} SO_{5 }} \text{ and } \mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{7}}\) |
| 3. | \(\mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{7}} \text{ and } \mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{8}}\) | 4. | \(\mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{6}} \text{ and } \mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{7}}\) |
83.
The molecule that exhibits non-planarity is:
| 1. |  | 2. |  |
| 3. |  | 4. |  |
84.
A gas that can readilydecolorize an acidified KMnO4 solution is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
85.
| Assertion(A): | After splitting of d-orbitals during complex formation, the orbitals form two sets of orbitals\(t_{2g}\)and \(e_{g}\)octahedral field. |
| Reason(R): | Splitting of d-orbitals occurs only in the case of strong-field ligands such as CN-. |
| 1. | Both(A)and(R)are True and(R)is the correct explanation of(A). |
| 2. | Both(A)and(R)are True but(R)is not the correct explanation of(A). |
| 3. | (A)is True but(R)is False. |
| 4. | Both(A)and(R)are False. |
Chemistry-Section-B
86.
The hybridised state of carbon, number of hexagons and number of pentagons in C60 (Fullerene), respectively, are:
1. sp2 , 12 & 20
2. sp3 , 20 & 12
3.sp3 , 12 & 20
4.sp2 , 20 & 12
87. Purification of impure compound Y, which has a boiling point of 315°C with slight decomposition, can be achieved through:
1. Simple distillation
2. Vacuum distillation
3. Extraction with solvent
4. Steam distillation
88.
The correct order of boiling point of the hydrides of 15thgroup is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
89.
| Assertion(A): | Ionization enthalpy increases along each series of transition elements from left to right. However, small variations occur. |
| Reason(R): | There is a corresponding increase in nuclear charge which accompanies the filling of electrons in the inner d-orbitals. |
| 1. | (A) is correct but (R) is not correct |
| 2. | (A) is not correct but (R) is correct |
| 3. | Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) |
| 4. | Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) |
90.
The main reason for a larger number of oxidation states exhibited by the actinoids than the corresponding lanthanoids is:
| 1. | The lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than 4f and 5d orbitals |
| 2. | Larger atomic size of actinoids than the lanthanoids |
| 3. | More energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals |
| 4. | Greater reactive nature of the actinoids than the lanthanoids |
91.
| Assertion(A): | Carbon forms two oxides \(CO\) and \(CO_2\) where \(CO\)is neutral whereas\(CO_2\)is acidic. |
| Reason(R): | \(CO_2\) will combine with water to give carbonic acid and\(CO\) is soluble in water. |
| 1. | Both(A)and(R)are True and(R)is the correct explanation of(A). |
| 2. | Both(A)and(R)are True but(R)is not the correct explanation of(A). |
| 3. | (A)is True but(R)is False. |
| 4. | Both(A)and(R)are False. |
92. The molecule that is not hydrolyzed by water at 25oC is:
1. SF4
2. SF6
3. BF3
4. SiCl4
93.
Which is not the product of hydrolysis of XeF6:
1. XeO3
2. XeO2F2
3. XeOF4
4. XeOF2
94. The correct IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)4Cl2][PtCl4] is:
| 1. | Tetraamminedichloroplatinum(IV) tetrachloroplatinate(II) |
| 2. | Dichlorotetraammineplatinum(IV) tetrachloroplatinate(II) |
| 3. | Tetrachloroplatinum(II) tetramineplatinate(IV) |
| 4. | Tetrachloroplatinum(II) dichlorotetraammineplatinate(IV) |
95.
The factors that may be regarded as the main cause oflanthanoid contraction among the following is:
| 1. | Greater shielding of 5d electron by 4f electrons |
| 2. | Poorershielding of 5d electron by 4f electrons |
| 3. | Effective shielding of one of the 4f electrons by another in the sub-shell |
| 4. | Poor shielding of one of the 4f electrons by another in the sub-shell |
96.
A compound, among the following, that can show both facial and meridional isomerism is:
97. Based on the hyperconjugation effect described above,
identify the compound in which the double bond is the longest:
1. CH3- CH = CH - CH3
2. (CH3)3 C-CH = CH2
3. CH3-CH = CH-CH(CH3)2
4. CH2 = CH- CH2 -CH3
98.
Diamond and graphite both are made of carbon atoms. Diamond is extremely hard whereas graphite is soft. This is because :
| 1. | Diamond has carbon-carbon double bond while graphite has carbon-carbon single bond |
| 2. | Diamond is ionic whereas graphite is covalent |
| 3. | Diamond has a strong covalent bond with regular tetrahedron pattern |
| 4. | Certain atoms in diamond are smaller in size |
99. Compound, among the following, that cannot be a tautomer of 1,3-cyclohexanedione is:
| 1. |  | 2. |  |
| 3. |  | 4. |  |
100. In\([Cr(NH_3)_6]~[Co(CN)_6]\), the oxidation state of Cr and Co, respectively, are :
| 1. | 0 and +6 | 2. | +2 and +4 |
| 3. | +3 and +3 | 4. | +4 and +2 |
Biology-I-Section-A
101. Which one of the following statements for a pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three are correct?
| 1. | It shows the energy content of different trophic-level organisms |
| 2. | It is inverted in shape |
| 3. | It is upright in shape |
| 4. | Its base is broad |
102.
Consider the following key events:
| I: | Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements. |
| II: | Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform. |
The stage of mitosis characterized by these key events is:
| 1. | Prophase | 2. | Metaphase |
| 3. | Anaphase | 4. | Telophase |
103.
An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch is an example of:
| 1. | Ectoparasitism | 2. | Endopararsitism |
| 3. | Commensalism | 4. | Mutualism |
104. ‘Increased biodiversity allows species to interact with each other in a useful manner, which makes the ecosystem more stable overall’. This statement can be attributed to:
1. David Tilman
2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Robert Constanza
4. Tansley
105. All the following are ex-situ methods for conservation of biodiversity except:
| 1. | Botanical Gardens | 2. | Seed banks |
| 3. | Plant tissue culture | 4. | Biosphere Reserves |
106. Identify the correct sequence of events during Prophase I of meiosis:
| a. | Synapsis of homologous chromosomes |
| b. | Chromosomes become gradually visible under a microscope |
| c. | Crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes |
| d. | Terminalisation of chiasmata |
| e. | Dissolution of synaptonemal complex |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1. (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
2. (b), (c), (d), (e), (a)
3. (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
4. (a), (c), (d), (e), (b)
107. At the end of the S phase in a typical eukaryotic cell cycle:
| I: | the amount of DNA per cell doubles |
| II: | there is no increase in the chromosome number |
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
108.
Of the total incident solar radiation, proportion of PAR is:
1. about 60%
2. about 50%
3. more than 80%
4. about 70%
109.
Consider the two statements:
| I: | Food chains rarely extend for more than 4 or 5 levels. |
| II: | Consumers at each level convert, on an average, only about 10% of the chemical energy in their food to their own organic tissue. |
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. Only I is correct.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.
110.
Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blanks:
| (A) | Bears go into ________ (1) _ during winter to ________ (2) _ cold weather. |
| (B) | A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents _________ (3) human population. |
| (C) | A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of ________ (4) _ . |
| (D) | An area with high levels of species richness is known as _________ (5) . |
Which of the following options, gives the correct fill-ups for the respective blank numbers from(1) to (5) in the statements?
| 1. | (1) - hibernation, (2) - escape,3) - expanding, (5) - hot spot |
| 2. | (3) - stable, (4) - commensalism,(5) - marsh |
| 3. | (1) - aestivation, (2) - escape,(3) - stable, (4) - mutualism |
| 4. | (3) - expanding, (4) - commensalism, (5) - biodiversity park |
111.
Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits the highest species diversity?
| 1. | Madagascar | 2. | Himalayas |
| 3. | Amazon forests | 4. | Western Ghats of India |
112.
Consider the two statements:
| Statement I: | Plant cells possess cell walls, plastids and a large central vacuole which are absent in animal cells. |
| Statement II: | Animal cells have centrioles which are absent in almost all plant cells. |
| 1. | Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
| 2. | Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
| 3. | Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct |
| 4. | Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
113. Key events during telophase include all the following except:
| 1. | Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements. |
| 2. | Nuclear envelope develops around the chromosome clusters at each pole forming two daughter nuclei. |
| 3. | Centromeres split and chromatids separate. |
| 4. | Nucleolus, Golgi complex, and ER reform. |
114. The term ‘Biodiversity’ to describe the combined diversity at all levels of biological organisation was popularized by:
1. Robert May
2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Edward Osborne Wilson
4. Alexander von Humboldt
115. Consider the given two statements:
| Statement I: | That humans derive countless direct economic benefits from nature is the broadly utilitarian argument for the need to conserve biodiversity. |
| Statement II: | That biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem services that nature provides is the narrowly utilitarian argument for the need to conserve biodiversity. |
| 1. | Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
| 2. | Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
| 3. | Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
| 4. | Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct |
116.
Attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores of chromosomes becomes evident in:
| 1. | Anaphase | 2. | Telophase |
| 3. | Prophase | 4. | Metaphase |
117. Typically, the Level 2 in a food chain in an ecosystem will be occupied by:
1. Primary producer
2. Herbivore
3. Carnivore
4. Apex predator
118. A more conservative and scientifically sound estimate made by Robert May places the global species diversity at about:
1. 1.8 million
2. 7 million
3. 22.22 million
4. 50 million
119. Consider the two statements:
| Statement I: | Besides flagella, Pili and Fimbriae are also surface structures of the bacteria but do not play a role in motility. |
| Statement II: | Pili and fimbriae help attach the bacteria to rocks in streams and also to the host tissues. |
| 1. | Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
| 2. | Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
| 3. | Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct |
| 4. | Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
120.
Consider the two statements:
| I: | Species diversity seen in tropical areas is much lower than that seen in temperate areas. |
| II: | Temperate areas, unlike tropical areas are less seasonal, more constant and promote niche specialization. |
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.
121. During decomposition of detritus, water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts by a process called:
| 1. | Catabolism | 2. | Leaching |
| 3. | Chelation | 4. | Ion exchange |
122. The picture shows mutual relationship between the fig tree and the wasp.
| I: | Many species of fig trees can only be pollinated by their ‘partner’ wasp species and no other species. |
| II: | The female wasp does not derive any benefit from this relationship. |
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
123.
Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by:
1. Parasite
2. Consumer
3. Decomposer
4. Producer
124. A primary carnivore:
I: in ecological context is a herbivore.
II: is also called as secondary consumer.
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
125. That cells divide and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells (Omnis cellula-e cellula) was first explained by:
| 1. | Louis Pasteur | 2. | Robert Koch |
| 3. | Rudolph Virchow | 4. | Francesco Redi |
126. The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called:
1. mutualism
2. commensalism
3. competition
4. amensalism
127.
Endoparasites are generally characterised by:
| 1. | greatly simplified morphological and anatomical features and high reproductive potential. |
| 2. | greatly simplified morphological and anatomical features and low reproductive potential. |
| 3. | highly developed morphological and anatomical features and high reproductive potential. |
| 4. | highly developed morphological and anatomical features and low reproductive potential. |
128.
The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by:
1. Mitochondria
2. Vacuoles
3. Plastids
4. Ribosomes
129. Amyloplasts, leucoplasts and aleuroplasts are:
| 1. | Chromoplasts containing accessory photosynthetic pigments |
| 2. | Pro-plastids capable of developing into any types of plastids |
| 3. | Plastids found in green algae, photosynthesizing bacteria and protists |
| 4. | Types of leucoplasts that store nutrients |
130. If in a pond there were 40 lotus plants last year and through reproduction 16 new plants are added, taking the current population to 56, the birth rate will be calculated as:
1. 0.2 offspring per lotus per year.
2. 0.4 offspring per lotus per year.
3. 1.2 offspring per lotus per year.
4. 1.6 offspring per lotus per year.
131. Mitosis accomplishes:
| I: | the segregation of duplicated chromosomes into daughter nuclei (karyokinesis) |
| II: | division of the cell into two daughter cells by the separation of cytoplasm (cytokinesis) |
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
132.
Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?
1. Plasmodesmata
2. Plastoquinones
3. Endoplasmic reticulum
4. Plasmalemma
133. Duration of cell cycle can vary from:
| I: | organism to organism |
| II: | from cell type to cell type in the same organism |
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
134.
Match List - I with List - II
| List -I | List - II | ||
| a. | Cristae | i. | Primary constriction in chromosome |
| b. | Thylakoids | ii. | Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus |
| c. | Centromere | iii. | Infoldings in mitochondria |
| d. | Cisternae | iv. | Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| 1. | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
| 2. | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
| 3. | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
| 4. | (i) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) |
135. For chemical defense against herbivores,Calotropishas
| 1. | Cardiacglycosides | 2. | strychnine |
| 3. | toxic ricin | 4. | distasteful quinine |
Biology-I-Section-B
136.
The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere are termed as:
| 1. | Keystone | 2. | Alien |
| 3. | Endemic | 4. | Rare |
137. Match List-I with List-II :
| List-I | List-II | ||
| (a) | Sacred groves | (i) | Alien species |
| (b) | Zoological park | (ii) | Release of large quantity of oxygen |
| (c) | Nile perch | (iii) | Ex-situconservation |
| (d) | Amazon forest | (iv) | Khasi Hills in Meghalaya |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| 1. | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
| 2. | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
| 3. | (iv) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
| 4. | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
138. Consider the following statements regarding meiosis:
| I: | At metaphase I, the microtubules from the opposite poles of the spindle attach to the pair of homologous chromosomes. |
| II: | At anaphase I, the homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated with each other. |
Of the two statements:
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
139. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:
| Column I [Population Interaction] | Column II [Example] | ||
| A | Mutualism | P | An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch |
| B | Commensalism | Q | Chthamalus and Balanus |
| C | Parasitism | R | Fig trees and wasp species |
| D | Competition | S | Cuscuta growing on hedge plants |
Codes:
| A | B | C | D | |
| 1. | R | P | Q | S |
| 2. | R | P | S | Q |
| 3. | P | R | S | Q |
| 4. | P | R | Q | S |
140.
The three steps of decomposition occur:
1. sequentially, with catabolism being the last step.
2. sequentially, with leaching being the last step.
3. simultaneously.
4. sequentially, but not in a particular order.
141.
Which one of the following has the highest number of species in nature?
| 1. | Insects | 2. | Birds |
| 3. | Angiosperms | 4. | Fungi |
142. Cuscuta [dodder]:
| I: | is a parasitic plant that is commonly found growing on hedge plants |
| II: | has lost its chlorophyll and leaves in the course of evolution. |
1. only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
143. Consider the given two statements:
| Assertion (A): | Detritus food chain (DFC) may be connected with the grazing food chain (GFC) at some levels. |
| Reason (R): | Some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC animals, and in a natural ecosystem, some animals are omnivores. |
| 1. | Both (A)and (R)are True and (R)correctly explains (A). |
| 2. | (A)is True but (R)is False |
| 3. | (A)is False but (R)is True |
| 4. | Both (A)and (R)are True but(R)does not correctly explain (A). |
144. Consider the two statements:
| Statement I: | Ribosomes are non-membrane bound organelles found in all cells. |
| Statement II: | Animal cells contain a non-membrane bound organelle called centrosome which helps in cell division. |
| 1. | Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
| 2. | Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
| 3. | Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct |
| 4. | Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
145.
Organisms prefer sexual mode of reproduction in adverse conditions because:
| 1. | It leads to a rapid proliferation of numbers |
| 2. | It requires two individuals that can support the progeny |
| 3. | It is less energy consuming than the asexual mode of reproduction |
| 4. | It provides protection and increases variations that may help progeny to survive |
146. How many of the given statements are correct?
| I: | The major lipids in cell membrane are phospholipids that are arranged in a bilayer. |
| II: | The ability of lipids and carbohydrates to move laterally within the membrane is measured by its fluidity. |
| III: | In addition to phospholipids, the animal cell membrane also contains cholesterol. |
| IV: | Algae have a cell wall, made of cellulose, galactans, mannans, and minerals like calcium carbonate. |
| V: | In plants other than algae, cell membrane consists of cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins and proteins |
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
147. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
| 1. | Golgi apparatus | Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids |
| 2. | Rough ER | Synthesis of steroidal hormones in animal cells |
| 3. | Lysosomes | Carry acid hydrolases |
| 4. | Nucelolus | Site for active rRNA synthesis |
148. Identify the incorrect statement:
| 1. | Death of an organism is the beginning of the detritus food chain/web. |
| 2. | In an aquatic ecosystem, the detritus food chain (DFC) is the major conduit for energy flow. |
| 3. | In a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the detritus food chain than through the grazingfood chain (GFC). |
| 4. | Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels. |
149. Between Telophase I and Prophase II:
1. The nuclear membrane disappears
2. DNA does not replicate
3. A tetrad of cells is formed
4. There is a long lasting resting stage
150.
A feature of ‘r’ strategists would be:
| 1. | few offspring | 2. | little parental care |
| 3. | sigmoid growth curves | 4. | a longer generation time |
Biology-II-Section-A
151. Where is the antigen binding site present in an antibody molecule?
| 1. | between the two light chains |
| 2. | between the two heavy chains |
| 3. | between the light and the heavy chains |
| 4. | at the very end of the antibody molecules [at their C terminus] |
152.
Consider the following statements:
| I: | Plasmodium falciparum causes malignant tertian malaria. |
| II: | Release of hemosiderin from burst RBCs is responsible for paroxysms of malarial attacks. |
| III: | Sporozoites are the infectious forms of Plasmodium. |
Which of the above statements are true?
| 1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
| 3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
153.
Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body:
1. Erythrocytes
2. Leucocytes
3. Neutrophils
4. Thrombocytes
154. Identify the correct statements:
| I: | Non-steroid hormones are produced by the adrenal glands, the ovaries, and the testes. |
| II: | Non-steroid peptide hormones enter the cell. |
| III: | Steroid hormones do notbind to plasma membrane receptors. |
1. Only I
2. Only I and II
3. Only III
4. I, II and II
155. Regarding ABO grouping:
| a. | the blood type is decided by the presence or absence of two surface antibodies on the RBCs namely anti-A and anti-B. |
| b. | the plasma of different individuals contain two natural antigens. |
| c. | a person with blood group A can receive blood either from a person with blood group O or from a person with blood group AB. |
| d. | a person with blood group A can donate blood either to a person with blood group O or to a person with blood group A. |
1. only a and b are correct
2. only c and d are correct
3. a, b, c, and d are correct
4. a, b, c, and d are incorrect
156.
Consider the following statements:
| I: | The diffusing capacity of CO2 across the respiratory membrane is higher than that of O2 |
| II: | The presence of Hb increases the efficiency ofO2 transport by about 10 times. |
| III: | Carbon monoxide binds to Hb with much more tenacity with respect to O2 |
Which of the above statements are true?
| 1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
| 3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
157. Identify the correct statement:
| 1. | Cancer cells divide in a highly regulated manner |
| 2. | Cancer cells exhibit contact inhibition |
| 3. | Cancer cells can spread to other places in the body |
| 4. | Cancer cells are well differentiated and capable of performing their functions correctly |
158. Consider the two statements:
| Assertion (A): | Adrenal medullary hormones can increase the cardiac output. |
| Reason (R): | Adrenal medullary hormones are steroids with prominent effects on osmoregulation and glucose homeostasis in human body. |
| 1. | Both (A)and (R)are True and (R)correctly explains (A). |
| 2. | (A)is True but (R)is False. |
| 3. | Both (A)and (R)are True but (R)does not correctly explain (A). |
| 4. | (A)is False but (R)is True. |
159.
A certain road accident patient with an unknown blood group needs an immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor?
1. Blood group B
2. Blood group AB
3. Blood group O
4. Blood group A
160. All the following can act as second messengers for hormones in our body except:
1. calcium ions
2. potassium ions
3. Inositol phosphate
4. cyclic adenosine monophosphate
161. Select the incorrect statement:
| 1. | Expiration occurs due to contraction of internal intercostal muscles. |
| 2. | Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure during inspiration. |
| 3. | The contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in dorso-ventral axis. |
| 4. | Inspiration is initiated due to the contraction of the diaphragm. |
162. Polio, diphtheria, pneumonia and tetanus:
| 1. | are all bacterial diseases |
| 2. | are transmitted by arthropod vectors |
| 3. | have been controlled to a large extent by the use of vaccines |
| 4. | are invariably fatal |
163. What cells in the blood are stimulated by IgE antibodies to initiate allergic response?
1. Mast cells
2. Monocytes
3. Lymphocytes
4. Basophils
164.
| Assertion (A): | Stressed people are more susceptible to contracting the common cold than people who are not stressed. |
| Reason (R): | Increased cortisol levels in stressed people can cause a decrease in immunity. |
| 1. | Both (A)and (R)are True but (R)does not correctly explain (A). |
| 2. | (A)is True but (R)is False. |
| 3. | Both (A)and (R)are True and (R)correctly explains (A). |
| 4. | (A)is False but (R)is True. |
165. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
| Assertion(A): | The amount of carbon dioxide that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much higher compared to that of oxygen. |
| Reason(R): | The solubility of carbon dioxide is 20 – 25 times lower than that of oxygen. |
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| 1. | Both(A)and(R)are True and(R)is the correct explanation of(A). |
| 2. | Both(A)and(R)are True but(R)is not the correct explanation of(A). |
| 3. | (A)is True but(R)is False. |
| 4. | Both(A)and(R)are False. |
166. What will be\(pCO_2\)and\(pO_2\)in atmospheric air as compared to alveoli, respectively?
1. Low and high
2. High and low
3. High and high
4. Low and low
167. Consider the two statements:
| Assertion (A): | Diabetes mellitus is associated with loss of glucose through urine and formation of harmful compounds known as ketone bodies. |
| Reason (R): | Insulin stimulates conversion of glucose to glycogen (glycogenesis) in the target cells. |
| 1. | (A)is True but(R)is False. |
| 2. | Both(A)and(R)are True but(R)is not the correct explanation of(A). |
| 3. | Both(A)and(R)are True and(R)is the correct explanation of(A). |
| 4. | (A)is False but(R)is True. |
168.
Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to:
| 1. | reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes |
| 2. | benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity |
| 3. | inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles |
| 4. | proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls |
169. The shape of the oxygen dissociation curve is:
1. a rectangular hyperbola
2. sigmoid
3. ellipse
4. parabola
170. The functions of hormones of Fight or Flight do not include:
| 1. | pupillary dilation |
| 2. | piloerection |
| 3. | increase in the strength of heart contraction |
| 4. | storage of glucose into glycogen resulting in a decreased concentration of glucose in the blood |
171.
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking?
1. asthma
2. respiratory acidosis
3. respiratory alkalosis
4. emphysema
172. Consider the given two statements:
| Statement I: | The outer pleural membrane is in close contact with the thoracic lining. |
| Statement II: | The inner pleural membrane is in contact with the lung surface. |
| Statement III: | The part starting with the external nostrils up to the terminal bronchioles constitutes the respiratory or exchange part of the respiratory system. |
| Statement IV: | The alveoli and their ducts form the conducting part of the respiratory system. |
| 1. | Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement III is correct; Statement IV is correct |
| 2. | Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect; Statement III is incorrect; Statement IV is incorrect |
| 3. | Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement III is incorrect; Statement IV is incorrect |
| 4. | Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect; Statement III is correct; Statement IV is correct |
173. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, then which of the following would you look out for confirmatory evidence?
1. Serum albumins
2. Fibrinogen in plasma
3. Serum globulins
4. Triglycerides
174. A cardiovascular centre that can moderate the cardiac function through the autonomic neural system is located in the:
| 1. | Pons varoli | 2. | Medulla oblongata |
| 3. | Hypothalamus | 4. | Cerebrum |
175. Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about:
1. 30 %
2. 50 %
3. 70 %
4. 90 %
176. Which of the following drugs has a potent stimulating action on CNS, producing a sense of euphoria and increased energy?
| 1. | Cocaine | 2. | Morphine |
| 3. | Barbiturates | 4. | Benzodiazepines |
177.
Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function:
| 1. | Oxytocin- posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands. |
| 2. | Melatonin- pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle. |
| 3. | Progesterone- corpus-luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs. |
| 4. | Atrial natriuretic factor- ventricular wall increasesblood pressure. |
178. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
| 1. | Acromegaly | Excess of growth hormone in adulthood |
| 2. | Diabetes insipidus | Deficiency of insulin |
| 3. | Graves’ disease | Hyperthyroidism |
| 4. | Addison’s disease | Underproduction of adrenal cortex hormones |
179.
The peptide thyroid hormone that lowers calcium and phosphate ion concentration in the blood is:
| 1. thyroxine | 2. triiodothyronine |
| 3. calcitonin | 4. thyroid-stimulating hormone |
180.
Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen:
| 1. | Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin. |
| 2. | Higher H+ concentration in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin. |
| 3. | Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin. |
| 4. | Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2. |
181. Heparin:
| 1. | is an anti-coagulant secreted by the basophils in the blood |
| 2. | is an anti-coagulant secreted by the eosinophils in the blood |
| 3. | is a thrombolytic secreted by the basophils in the blood |
| 4. | is a thrombolytic secreted by the eosinophils in the blood |
182. Neurohypophysis (pars nervosa):
| I: | is also known as posterior pituitary. |
| II: | stores and releases two hormones called oxytocin and vasopressin. |
1. Both I and II are correct
2. Both I and II are incorrect
3. I is correct, II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect, II is correct
183. Regarding Filariasis:
| I: | It is caused by a flatworm. |
| II: | It is transmitted through arthropod vectors. |
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
184. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II regarding innate immunity and select the correct match from the codes given:
| Column I | Column II | ||
| A | Physical barrier | P | Macrophages, Neutrophils |
| B | Physiological barrier | Q | Acid in stomach, saliva |
| C | Cellular barrier | R | Interferons |
| D | Cytokine barrier | S | Skin and mucus membrane |
Codes:
| A | B | C | D | |
| 1. | Q | S | P | R |
| 2. | Q | S | R | P |
| 3. | S | Q | R | P |
| 4. | S | Q | P | R |
185. Identify the correct statements regarding the life cycle the malarial parasite:
| I: | Sporozoites are the infectious form for humans. |
| II: | The parasites initially multiply within the red blood cells and then attack the liver cells. |
| III: | The rupture of RBCs is associated with release of a toxic substance, haemozoin, which is responsible for the chill and high fever recurring every three to four days. |
| IV: | Fertilization occurs in human RBCs |
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. II and IV only
4. I and III only
Biology-II-Section-B
186. During cardiac cycle:
| 1. | all the four chambers of heart can never be in a relaxed state simultaneously. |
| 2. | as the tricuspid valve gets open, blood from the pulmonary artery flows into the right ventricle. |
| 3. | all the four chambers of heart can never be in a contracted state simultaneously. |
| 4. | as the bicuspid valve gets open, blood from the aorta flows into the left ventricle. |
187. O2 and CO2 are exchanged by simple diffusion:
| I: | at alveoli |
| II: | between blood and tissues |
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
188. What feature on ECG represents the return of ventricles from excited to normal state?
| 1. | P wave | 2. | R wave |
| 3. | S wave | 4. | T wave |
189. The principle of immunisation or vaccination is based on the property of:
| I: | ‘memory’ of the immune system. |
| II: | ability to distinguish between self and non-self. |
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
190.
Which of the following diseases is/are correctly matched with their modes of transmission?
Disease/Infection | Mode of transmission | |
I. | Ascariasis | Contaminated food and water |
II. | Elephantiasis | Vector-borne |
III. | Ringworm | Direct contact |
Options:
| 1. | Only I and II | 2. | Only I and III |
| 3. | Only II and III | 4. | I, II and III |
191. Consider the two statements:
| Statement I: | The alveoli have ciliated cells in them to help expel dust particles that make it this far down into the respiratory tract. |
| Statement II: | Gas exchange between the lungs and the blood, and between the blood and tissue fluid, is an active transport process. |
1. Statement I is correct: Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct: Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is incorrect
192. The development of secondary sexual characteristics in human females is essentially regulated by:
1. Androgens from adrenal cortex
2. Estrogen
3. Progesterone
4. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
193. Correctly identify the match for A-G labelled in the given figure:
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | |
| A | Atrial natriuretic peptide | EPO | Atrial natriuretic peptide | EPO |
| B | Vaso- constriction | Vaso- dilation | Vaso- dilation | Vaso- constriction |
| C | Increase in blood pressure | Decrease in blood pressure | Decrease in blood pressure | Increase in blood pressure |
| D | Decrease in renin | Decrease in renin | Decrease in renin | Decrease in renin |
| E | Decrease in Angiotensin II and aldosterone | Decrease in Angiotensin II and aldosterone | Decrease in Angiotensin II and aldosterone | Decrease in Angiotensin II and aldosterone |
| F | Diuresis | Concentration of urine | Diuresis | Concentration of urine |
194.
The infectious stage of plasmodium that enters the human body is:
1.Sporozoites
2. Female gametocytes
3. Male gametocytes
4. Trophozoites
195.
Cancer cells exhibit:
| 1. | Contact inhibition | 2. | Low division rate |
| 3. | Metastasis | 4. | High degree of differentiation |
196. All the following are peptide hormones except:
| 1. | Insulin | 2. | ADH |
| 3. | Somatostatin | 4. | Adrenaline |
197. A difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles characterises:
1. Emphysema
2. Asthma
3. Tuberculosis
4. Common cold
198. Neurohypophysis:
1. secretes large number of tropins
2. synthesizes oxytocin and vasopressin
3. merges with pars distalis in humans
4. stores and releases oxytocin and vasopressin
199. At sea level, which of the following values of the intraalveolar pressure is realistically expected to lead to inspiration?
1. 760 mmHg
2. 758 mmHg
3. 763 mmHg
4. 730 mmHg
200. The volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute is called as the:
1. stroke volume
2. ejection fraction
3. cardiac output
4. end diastolic volume
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